The good kind is used in good causes, the bad kind in bad causes
So, do we define the rhetoric as it is situated within a "good" or "bad" cause? Could the same rhetoric be used in both contexts and therefore be characterized as "good" in once case but "bad" in the other?
good man as well as a good orator?
I just asked my English 1900 students to read Orwell's "Politics and the English Language," which pretty well convinced them of that a good man is often not a "good" orator, if we consider a "good" orator to use complex language and metaphors. Orwell's essay explains that such oration likely means the orator is hiding their "true" intentions in some way. Obviously, the issue is far more complex than that, so what nuances ARE at play here? What is a "good" man? What is a "good" orator?