So is it fair to assume that the Goode Hypothesis is based on the idea that First only the rich can divorce and do so at there own rate Then it becomes available to the lower classes and so they begin to do it gradually as it is not immediately socially accepted despite being available. Then as it becomes common place amoung the poor the rich begin to see it as "lowly" to divorce and avoid it due to social stigma. Is that the presumed chain or are there other motivations that I am missing?