Reply to Objection 2.
"It only uses lesser sciences to make clearer it's teachings, due to the defect of the human intellect."
Reply to Objection 2.
"It only uses lesser sciences to make clearer it's teachings, due to the defect of the human intellect."
Reply to Objection 1.
"That which is more certain in itself isn't per se so to us. The authority propagating sacred scripture as true far surpasses that of the sciences." * To give an example, our science of sociology for instance may be completely false & based on a fundamental misunderstanding, even if highly unlikely- this is because our human intellects are so very dark, & though authoritative, can't be called a maximum. Now sacred doctrine is literally revealed by the infallible God, which is to say that it's very certain, the authority behind its certainty is much more great. * Certainty doesn't here refer to how easy to believe a truth is, or how demonstrable it seems.
I answer that,
Aquinas considers sacred doctrine inasmuch as it is speculative, & inasmuch as it is practical seperately. * A speculative science is more noble depending on its certainty, & on its subject matter. While the other sciences by light of human reason seek to understand that which is within the grasp of man, whereas sacred doctrine treats that which can't be grasped by human reason as it has been revealed by God, who can neither deceive nor be deceived. * Practical sciences are less noble by directing itself toward the good of another (the good of the military is for the good of the state, but not necessarily vice versa; this applies to their sciences), & thereby more noble by having other sciences directed towards it's good. Sacred doctrine according to its practicality is ordered towards the final cause of man, which the other sciences can not achieve, but can at best aid in.
Objection 2.
Attempt: A sign is not sufficient to demonstrate it less noble. One science may check its work on another (even if the second is less definite & trustworthy.)
Objection 1
Attempt: Unfamiliar with the sciences, if I had to take a guess, the nobler science defends the principles, wheras the less noble science is defended by a higher science. Otherwise, I might say that the object of a noble science is noble, wheras the object of a less noble science is less noble; the object of sacred doctrine is God's speech which is very noble, moreso than most other sciences.
I answer that
"Sacred doctrine primarily treats divine things which are speculative, so it is more properly speculative- but still does it include practical sciences secondarily."
On the contrary
"While practical sciences investigate truth as the means to human action, sacred doctrine investigates the truth of God for its own sake."
Objection 2.
Attempt: As established earlier, sacred doctrine is one science; but different laws being different practical sciences splits sacred doctrine up. Furthermore, old & new law" merely describe different stages in salvation history.
Objection 1.
Attempt: Any science can be used practically, but that doesn't make it a practical science. For instance, building off of what Aquinas says earlier, mathematics defends the principles of music for instance, & music is a practical science; mathematics is applied practically without being practical.
Reply to Objection 2.
They're all treated under revelation. Though consciousness is one faculty, it extends to five senses- likewise, though the treatment of angels, ethics, & corporeal creatures are subjects of different sciences, they are all treated in Sacred doctrine insofar as they are found in revalation.
Reply to Objection 1.
"Sacred Doctrine treats God as its subject primarily, & all the other things treated are only in reference to God."
Objection 1
Attempt: Sacred doctrine treats sacred scripture as its class of subjects.
I answer that,
"Sacred Doctrine is the science of that which is revealed. Therefor if many things are revealed, no matter how unrelated, these as written in scripture will be the object of sacred science."
Objection 2.
Attempt: Can it not be said that these are subsets of this science, just as the science of math also has induction?
Reply to Objection 2.
History is in sacred science not necessarily, but rather: * 1.) It may give us example of how to live our lives * 2.) In order to establish authority of the original legates of revelation
Reply to Objection 1
Not even close. Sacred doctrine is a science since it is the kind of science which is defended by a higher science.
I answer that
There are two types of science * 1.) those which can be know naturally though intelligence * 2.) those which are defended, suppose, & build off of higher principles
Sacred science is the latter kind; its principles are defended from that which is known through the science of God & his blessed
Objection 1.
Attempt: I recall reading this & a few articles a while ago, so if I recall correctly: sacred doctrine proceeds from the preambles of faith, rather than articles of faith.
Objection 2.
Attempt: Sacred science deals with these per accidens: they are examples & rolemodels.
Reply to Objection 2.
Sciences are differentiated by how they get knowledge. Furthermore, these different means of attaining knowledge can still come to the same knowledge. Thus theology of sacred doctrine is different to the theology of philosophy, due to the different means of coming to truth.
Objection 2.
Attempt: philosophical science doesn't treat all that is, since there are things which are, & are also above our understanding. Furthermore, there may be things which are, but may not be known by philosophical science; the essence of God for instance.
Reply to Objection 1.
He adds onto what I say; once they are revealed by God they must be accepted by faith. Faith simply is a trust in something that can't been demonstrated like how 1+1=2 can be.
I answer that
It is necessary for salvation that God reveals that which wasn't built up by human reason. * 1.) Mans end is God, & Gods essence can't be grasped by man- but you need to know what your end is in order to reach it. * 2.) Even what you can discover about God through natural reason will be known after a while by few with admixture of many errors.
because the truth about God such as reason could discover, would only be known by a few, and that after a long time, and with the admixture of many errors.
<3
Objection 1.
Attempt: the verse is cut off. "Reflect upon what has been assigned to you, for you do not need what is hidden." & sacred scripture is not hidden to us.
five ways.
Note that these get you certain qualities of something. Aquinas in the following questions will show you what these qualities mean for the being.
The first and more manifest way
and necessity
Necessity here refers to incorruptibility.
now
In this case
at one time
In one case
always
IN EVERY CASE. Translating the Latin this way destroys the argument. If I say "sometimes virtues are like this, sometimes they are like that" I do not mean that the nature of a virtue changes, but rather it is like this in some cases & like that in others. This is true with the latin, & it can be translated to mean "at some times" literally rather than in the sense mentioned.
not
Not always existing
at some time
In some case
now
In this world
at one time
In one case
There is no case known (neither is it, indeed, possible) in which a thing is found to be the efficient cause of itself; for so it would be prior to itself, which is impossible. Now in efficient causes it is not possible to go on to infinity, because in all efficient causes following in order, the first is the cause of the intermediate cause, and the intermediate is the cause of the ultimate cause, whether the intermediate cause be several, or only one. Now to take away the cause is to take away the effect. Therefore, if there be no first cause among efficient causes, there will be no ultimate, nor any intermediate cause.
Same general principle from the first way applied in a different context.
efficient cause
The efficient cause in this instance seems to be referring to: that which is giving existence to the effect.
potentiality
W potency & Whatnot
For motion is nothing else than the reduction of something from potentiality to actuality.
This defines motion. Simply put: potentiality is how a thing can be, & actuality is how a thing is.
Reply
He essentially says "Actually God is necessary. For demonstration of this you may refer to the five demonstrations above." Demonstrating that God is necessary of course does completely away with the belief that the natural world doesn't need God to explain anything.
for all things that are changeable and capable of defect must be traced back to
Fourth way
immovable
First way
self-necessary
Third way
as to its first cause.
Second way
Since nature works for a determinate end under the direction of a higher agent,
Fifth way
Reply to Objection 3.
An effect doesn't need to be exactly proportionate to a cause if you want to demonstrate only some qualities or at least the existence of the cause- rather than every single thing about the thing.
Reply to Objection 1
My attempt was rather accurate, so I will just elaborate & rebut the misunderstanding of the other commenter, doug_keiller. Firstly he misunderstands what Aquinas means here by 'evil'. Aquinas doesn't mean malice; Aquinas means all deprivations in what should be. To use his example, all the suffering in the world, lacking the food, shelter, protection & joy: this is all evil that God only permits so that he can bring about an even greater good from it. He supposes that this is all for nothing, which can't be demonstrated; Aquinas merely needs to make the point that there is a logical explanation for how an infinite good can coexist with evil.
The fifth way
On the contrary
In the ancient Nearest, & even into antiquity, names denoted nature. Classically known, Abraham meant father of multitude. Or more polemically known, Peter was literally the word rock in Aramaic. Other points in scripture will point out that X was named X because they will Y. Rather than being an exception as it is today, this was the sturdy norm, especially during the Exodus when this is spoken. To go further, it can be said that these peoples would leave completely unnamed/unnoticed that which served no purpose whatever, or at least this final fact is what I've heard. With this audience's cultural fact in mind, God saying "my name is..." should immediately get one's ear to perk up, since the mentioned audience understood "Who am I" to be completely inseparable from the nature of the person. "I am..." needs not annotation: God is about to reveal who his is. "... Who am." To break this down, who refers to a person, & am refers most generally to being something, & when not connected with a particular something that it is being, "am" refers generally to existing. "I am the one who is existing." Recalling the who-nature principle: God is here upon being asked what he is responds by saying that he by his nature is existing.
Objection 2
This seems to be essentially arguing "we don't need God to explain anything, & if anything there is a simpler of an explanation from nature alone."
Attempt: Aquinas will go on to demonstrate that certain things in the world do not get accounted for by their own principles, like causality. I don't think that Aquinas refers to his previous arguments in this way, so furthermore: "For all natural things..." wouldn't explain miraculous signs, like Pio's Stigmata, Fatima, the 5 Eucharistic Miracles, the countless healing miracles, so on & so fourth.
supposing God did not exist
Quiet part out loud
it is superfluous to suppose that what can be accounted for by a few principles has been produced by many
Occams razor
Objection
Attempt: Perhaps this is the case if the evil is permanently such. But it is written "I will wipe away all tears", & likewise it seems that the infinite goodness will indeed render all evil undiscoverable, & that he permitted it as a means to create a greater good that would've otherwise been impossible. For instance a snowball effect in which an adulterous woman brings into the world a new image bearer of God.
When the existence of a cause is demonstrated from an effect, this effect takes the place of the definition of the cause in proof of the cause's existence.
"When proving a cause exists from its effects, the effects are what you will know the existence by."
Reply to Objection 1
"Articles of faith aren't knowable by nature alone, since they are known only by God revealing, meaning that this isn't an article of faith. In addition, somebody who doesn't understand the demonstrations for God can still accept it by faith."
I answer that
"You can demonstrate the existence of something through the effects of that thing."
two ways
"The invisible things of Him are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made"
"Gods qualities are knowable through creation"
Objection 3.
Attempt: All that one needs to do is demonstrate that the cause isn't finite. Since you can't have an infinite regress of finite things it seems that one would just need to demonstrate some bedrock.
Objection
Objection
Reply
"The idea of something that necessarily exists doesn't necessarily correspond with a real thing that necessarily exists." To give a similar rebuttal to Anselm(the originator of this argument)'s critics: I can imagine an island that necessarily exists, however this doesn't mean that what I've imagined corresponds with anything in reality,"
he understands that what the word signifies exists actually
"That doesn't mean that the idea of something that exists [that which there is no greater] corresponds with anything in reality."
argued that it actually exists
Since the previous point shows that the argument is only semantic, he has to start from square one on the existence of God. The previous point unravels the entire argument, & this last sentence finishes the blow by elaborating why the argument can't prove God as self evident to us: "Since this doesn't show God's existence, one would have to presuppose his existence for this to work."
Nor
Can also be translated as "furthermore [what is] not..."
Reply
"That truth is, this is self evident to us. What the full extent of truth is, this is not.
Perhaps not everyone who hears this word "God" understands it to signify something than which nothing greater can be thought, seeing that some have believed God to be a body.
"Objection 2 says once the terms are understood, but this assumes that the terms will even be understood. The greatest possible thing won't be physical, yet some believe this to be so"
I answer that
God is his existence, meaning that his existence is self-evident. However, in order to say that it is fully self-evident, self-evident to us, one must be able to comprehend the essence of both terms. We do not know the essence of God (defended later), which means that it is not self evident to us.
If, therefore the essence of the predicate and subject be known to all
If the terms are all understood without additional reasoning leading one to this conclusion
two ways
"A thing is self-evident because the attribute being considered is by its nature apart of the essence being considered. It can firstly be self-evident to us if the human mind can comprehend the terms, generally because they are in some way built off of what we can sense. It can be self evident but not to us if one of the terms can't be comprehended by the human mind (at least not in this life)." Note that comprehend here would mean to know everything that there is to know about something's essence.
Reply
"That we seek the completion which only God can give is implanted within us, however this is separate from knowledge of God, or how we can be completed."
Therefore the existence of God is self-evident.
"Something is self evident if it is naturally implanted within us, & God is." Attempt: It can be said that the existence of God is self-evident to some degree, since God is truth, & the existence of truth is self-evident (didn't realize that he made this point in the third objection). However, from the perspective on mankind, there seems to be a distinction between truth, God, since the next objection defines God as "that which no greater can exist." (I will soon rebut this too) The aforementioned definition when compared with truth doesn't lead to any immediate corollaries- even if they do exist- meaning that the existence of God isn't self evident .This is to say that God is self-evident, but not to mankind.
Therefore, that God exists is not self-evident.
"The objections misunderstand self-evidence, it is true that things are said to be self-evident which are known as soon as the terms are known, but in addition, one mustn't be able to lie himself out of it." He then quotes sacred scripture as a prooftext to demonstrate that one can indeed lie to himself about this.
Therefore the proposition "God exists" is self-evident.
"Self-evidence is when everything is known from the terms. God is 'that which no greater can be conceived'. Something actually existing is better than a mere thought, so since God must be the greatest, he can't just exist in thought, but also in reality." ----Attempt: This is a very cheeky argument that I see atheists write off as self-evidently stupid. I'd say that one can conceive of "that which no greater can be conceived" in the same way that one conceives of a square circle- which is just according to it's words & not actually; the person describing God does not actually conceive of him. Since this can't even be conceived mentally by us, it isn't necessarily true that it can exist physically, since it isn't even definitely conceived mentally. In other words, the only rebuttal that I could conceive is rebutting the conceivability of God- though I mean to do this according to his essence, not to say that he is inconceivable in every respect.
Thus, when the nature of a whole and of a part is known, it is at once recognized that every whole is greater than its part.
I believe that this is an example of the formerly established principle.