igns of Elizabeth I in England and Catharine de Medici in France would dwell on the issue of'women's suitability f'or political rule, but, in the period when kinship and kingship were integrally related, discussions about male kings were equally preoccupied with masculinity and femininity.48
I find it interesting that people often use these examples while explaining why women are not fit for rulership, but why can't women then use examples of why men can't be rulers also? Men are emotional, they just express their emotions in violence and anger rather than crying, so Hitler is a good example. Can't the same argument against women be made against men?