"World inequality, however, cannot be explained by climate or diseases, or any version of the geography hypothesis. Just think of Nogales. What separates the two parts is not climate, geography, or disease environment, but the U.S.-Mexico border."
Thoughts: The authors make a really strong point against the notion that geography is the main decider of wealth and development. The strongest and most obvious case to me is probably North and South Korea. This prompted me to think about other examples that are closer to my personal life. Having lived a significant amount of time in China I can very much see how this is also the case, for example the Provence of Guangdong is very developed and extremely wealthy, while it's neighbors Guangxi and Yunnan remain much poorer. However, I can also think of many examples that go against this argument as well. The first one that popped into my head was the oil producers in the Middle East. They have similar systems and cultural beliefs that one would normally associate with a less developed country, yet they are extremely wealthy and hold great economic and diplomatic power. Why? Because of their natural geography which gave them oil. It ties into today’s inquiry question by challenging the idea that natural conditions alone explain why some nations fail while others succeed.
“The real reason that the Kongolese did not adopt superior technology was because they lacked any incentives to do so. They faced a high risk of all their output being expropriated and taxed by the all-powerful king, whether or not he had converted to Catholicism.”
Question: This really makes me wonder. How much does economic growth depend on security and trust in the government? If people fear that their wealth will be taken away, they won't invest in the future, but if that's true, how did China, a communist country, grow so fast despite having strong government control? There are so many cases where large corporations suffer big losses in capital and assets based on political disputes. Are there cases where restrictive governments have still managed to create incentives for economic development? If so, how did they do it? This connects to today’s inquiry question by highlighting the role of government policies in either encouraging or stifling long-term prosperity and domestic growth.
“Although the ignorance hypothesis still rules supreme among most economists and in Western policymaking circles—which, almost to the exclusion of anything else, focus on how to engineer prosperity—it is just another hypothesis that doesn’t work.”
Epiphany: I've always had the perception in politics that bad leaders are just plain stupid. Why would a president promise to lower grocery prices, then immediately places tariffs on their largest long term importers? Wouldn't anyone with any background in economics know the consumer bares most of that tariff? So I often find myself asking: Why did they do that? Because their just stupid: That's what I'd always thought. But now, I wonder if they really are stupid or if they know exactly how to fix an issue, but they fail because those in power choose policies that serve their own interests rather than those of the people. This completely changes how I think about global inequality. It's not just about finding the right policies like investing in education, infrastructure or specific industries, but its about fixing political power and who benefits from the system staying the way it is.