New Studies in Biblical Theology (42 vols.) (Volumes 1-10; 12-38; 40-44)
This was highly recommended by Andrew Goodwill, my professor for MBS class on Biblical Theology of the Old Testament.
New Studies in Biblical Theology (42 vols.) (Volumes 1-10; 12-38; 40-44)
This was highly recommended by Andrew Goodwill, my professor for MBS class on Biblical Theology of the Old Testament.
And Greek isn’t the only language that’s true in
True in Portuguese
The Davidic Covenant is unconditional because God does not place any conditions of obedience upon its fulfillment.
Except that David thought there was a condition of obedience (1 Kings 2:4) and Solomon thought there was a condition of obedience (1 Kings 8:25; 2 Chr. 6:16).
the resurrected saints will reign with Him over Israel
So even in the final fulfillment of the Kingdom of Israel, they will be ruled by gentiles!?!!
In the first printings of the 1611 KJV Bible there is a printing error, there were many printing errors throughout, but one specifically known is in the book of Ruth 3:15,
This was not merely a typo, it was based on differences in the underlying texts. “The MT preserves the 3rd person masculine singular form וַיָּבֹא (vayyavoʾ, “then he went”; cf. ASV, NAB, NIV, NCV, NRSV, NLT), while many medieval MSS (supported by the Syriac and Vulgate) have the 3rd person feminine singular form וַתָּבֹא (vattavoʾ, “then she went”; cf. KJV, NASB, TEV).” W. Hall Harris, ed., The NET Bible Notes, 1st, Accordance electronic ed. (Richardson: Biblical Studies Press, 2005), paragraph 18846. https://accordance.bible/link/read/NET_Notes#18846
Interestingly, though the MT is Masculine, the official translation followed the vulgate and went with Feminine.
only in one Greek manuscript, 629 (14th century)
Can anyone verify this?
This 14th century manuscript (629) is the earliest manuscript to contain the Comma Johanneum. Did the resources get mixed up, or does 629 actually attest to both of these peculiarities?
earlier
Should read, "in any greek manuscripts."
From Erasmus’ own behavior in dealing with the CJ, we can conclude that he would not put a back translation of the Vulgate in place of the Greek text.
The reason he did not supply the CJ is that the MSS he had purposefully omitted the CJ. The reason he supplied the last verses of Revelation is because he knew it was supposed to be there, but the last leaf of the MSS had fallen off.
The quote "οἱ γὰρ τρεῖς τὸ ἕν εἰσιν" is cited as an authority ("γὰρ") for the Trinity. Thus it bears the mark of a scriptural allusion.
Again, likely a quote from 1 John 5:8, not v. 7
The quote, "Καὶ οἱ τρεῖς τὸ ἕν εἰσιν", is likely from the Comma rather than verse 8 because it lacks "εις (in)".
But Athanasius' quote is not word-for-word from 1 John 5:7 since it is missing "outoi" and adds the definite article, which 1 John 5:8 contains. This is by no means a proven point.
Supports automatic scripture verse references detection in the web browser:
YES!!!
Now
@8:45 min
Volume and direction of the transatlantic slave trade from all African to all American regions (David Eltis and David Richardson, Atlas of the Transatlantic Slave Trade (New Haven, 2010), Author provided)
According to this illustration, 387,000 slaves were brought to the United States, and 4,909,000 were brought to Brazil.