Thy state is the more gracious; for 'tis a vice to know him. He hath much land, and fertile: let a
It's really hard to tell if Hamlet is switching between prose and iambic pentameter on purpose. I know that switching to prose implies madness, and that he was switching intentionally earlier, but it seems more out of control know. Is that supposed to play into the uncertainty of the situation? Or is it just showing that Hamlet is actually mad now?