Aristotle already thought the argument to be deceiving. He ridicules it by saying that according to the same kind of argument a hair, which was subject to an even pulling power from opposing sides, would not break, and that a man, being just as hungry as thirsty, placed in between food and drink, must necessarily remain where he is and starve. To him it was the wrong argument for the right proposition. Absolute propositions concerning the non-existence of things are always in danger of becoming falsified on closer investigation. They contain a kind of subjective aspect: “as far as I know.”
Aristotle came up with some solid counter examples against using the principle of sufficient reason and showed how they could be falsified.
What is the flaw in logic that would cause it to fail? Are there situations in which it could be used reliably? Ones in which it can't?